The description of clairvoyance states:
When you cast the spell, you choose seeing or hearing. You can use the chosen sense through the sensor as if you were in its space.
The wording “as if you were in its space” arguably leaves room for ambiguity.
If a creature with innate darkvision — e.g., an elf — uses the spell to see into a dark location, there is no question that the caster would benefit from that darkvision. If “you,” the elf casting the spell, were physically present in the dark location, you undeniably would have the benefit of your darkvision.
The same logic might not apply, however, to a creature who has darkvision solely by dint of a magic item. If “you,” a human caster wearing goggles of night, were physically present in the dark location, whether you would benefit from darkvision would depend on whether “you” means just you or you and your equipment.
The by-now-familiar wisdom that spells do only what they say they do (and anything more is left up to the DM) seems not to resolve this issue, because it is not clear what the spell is saying it does.
How does darkvision granted by a magic item interact with clairvoyance?