number theory – How can this conjecture be true if it fails for $d=1$?

In the following photo is the definition of some sets and the conjecture of Zaremba. Am I missing something obvious or does the conjecture not certainly fail as $d=1$ will never be in the set $mathfrak{D}_{{1,ldots,A}}$?

The are no options $b$ as a numerator for $d=1$ that satisfy $0<b<1$.

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