This is what I got.
Proof.
We could use Symmetric Groups. Let Ω be a nonempty set and let S Ω be set of all bijective functions from Ω to itself.
I am confused after that
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This is what I got.
Proof.
We could use Symmetric Groups. Let Ω be a nonempty set and let S Ω be set of all bijective functions from Ω to itself.
I am confused after that