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[ Horoscopes ] Open Question: Psychics: What does the future hold for the Moon of the Aquarian Virgo? ,
Suppose that a property price $ S $ is given by a Brownian motion. Justify from the definition why it is not possible to calculate future values of the asset on the basis of past values of $ S $,
I do not know exactly what that requires. I know that Brownian motion is a random process with independent increments (at least as we defined them in our course). I'm not sure what else to add or how to formalize my argument more by using the definition of Brownian motion.