I could not figure out why I ended a client-based VPN connection to a remote site with one
192.168.1.x Subnet until I find out that the internet service provider's modem is running
192.168.1.x Subnet for their own purposes.
I would prefer not to add a routing statement on my own workstations as this is very painful and productive. So I'd like to add a route statement to my firewall (the gateway in front of my ISP's subnet) to fix the situation.
However, I have no idea how to do this or how to formulate Google Search to get close to what I want to do. Do I want a null-route statement, a statement that sends packets to loopback? No idea, but it feels like a "divide by zero" situation.
In the end, I want every device on my internal private subnet behind my firewall to think there is no device
192.168.1.0 Subnet out there. This should force all traffic over the VPN.
What can be done to fix this?
- Internal private subnet:
- Internal GW:
- ISP provided internal subnet:
- ISP GW:
- ISP-provided device subnet:
Traceroute without VPN to be active:
Track the route to 192.168.1.1 over a maximum of 30 hops 1 8 ms 12 ms 4 ms kcactc-fw [172.16.16.1] 2 10 ms 8 ms 5 ms 10.0.10.1 3 10 ms 9 ms 13 ms 192.168.1.1